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Are you implying that a negative categorically cannot be proven?
Edit: I have since disavowed this instance
No. A negative can be proven. It’s done all the time in science and mathematics.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burden_of_proof_(philosophy)#Proving_a_negative
Ok, just verifying that that fallacy wasn’t the crux of your argument
Edit: I have since disavowed this instance